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M. D. Robertson's avatar

Some thoughts:

The principle of excluded middle (EM): every proposition is either true or false.

The principle of non-contradiction (PNC): no proposition is both true and false. Or, in Aristotle's metaphysical formulation, nothing can be and not be etc. (Kant doesn't like this metaphysical formulation, but I side with Aristotle here.)

PNC, but not EM, allows the possibility that some propositions are neither true nor false. Aristotle seems to apply PNC to all propositions but EM only to propositions about the present or past, not the future.

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I'm not sure I'm following your use of "corresponds" here. You seem to be using it to talk about correspondence in the sense of a truth-making relation (per the correspondence theory of truth), but also to talk about sense/reference/meaning. What a statement refers to and what makes a statement true or false (or neither, in the case of a statement about the future) are different questions. This matters when we talk about how future contingent propositions are related to possibility.

If we compare (W) "There will be a sea-battle tomorrow" with (M) "There may be a sea battle tomorrow" and (S) "There was a sea battle at Salamis in 480 BC", the term "sea battle" is used univocally in all three, i.e., it has the same sense and the same referent -- the same meaning. (S) is true based on its correspondence with actuality -- what actually happened. (M) is true, albeit unlikely, based on its correspondence with possibility (or potential), which is present now, allowing us to say that it is true now, but (W) is neither true nor false (today), so that kind of correspondence relation doesn't apply. But maybe you intend something different by "corresponds" here -- maybe you are talking about meaning, not truth-value. But does (W) MEAN what (v) says it means? What are we talking about when we talk about the future? I'm not sure (v) captures the semantics of future contingent statements.

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IIRC, Quine strongly disagrees with Aristotle's claim that [necessarily (P or ~P)] does not imply [(necessarily P) or (necessarily ~P)]. Again, I side with Aristotle.

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